Which of the following is not an advisable criterion for an effective incentive plan? A. The rewards are believable.B. The rewards are linked to performance.C. The rewards satisfy individual needs.D. The rewards require rarely attainable performance.E. The rewards are agreed on by the manager and employees.
  • The rewards require require rarely attainable performance (D)
  • Gainsharing
  • Esteem
  • support organizational change.
Maslow's levels of needs, in order from lowest (most basic) to highest level, are A. self-actualization, esteem, love, safety, and physiological.B. safety, love, esteem, self-actualization, and physiological.C. physiological, safety, self-actualization, esteem, and love.D. physiological, safety, love, esteem, and self-actualization. E. safety, physiological, esteem, love, and self-actualization.
  • negative reinforcement.
  • task significance.
  • physiological, safety, love, esteem and self- actualization (D)
  • The rewards require require rarely attainable performance (D)
According to Herzberg's two-factor theory, in the zone between the motivating factors and the hygiene factors, employees are A. dissatisfied.B. satisfied.C. neither satisfied nor dissatisfied.D. unmotivated.E. stagnant.
  • Setting goals linked to an action plan
  • motivating
  • make sure pay levels, policies, and working conditions are reasonable.
  • neither satisfied or dissatisfied (C)
Ultraviolet light is absorbed in the
  • earth
  • oxygen
  • bombardment
  • stratosphere
What are oxidation reactions?
  • because it has a more eccentric orbit
  • molecules scatter blue light more effectively than red light.
  • gases that absorb infrared light
  • reactions that remove oxygen from the atmosphere, such as fire and rust
The most recent ice age ended
  • gases that absorb infrared light
  • about 10,000 years ago.
  • troposphere, stratosphere, thermosphere, exosphere.
  • photosynthesis from life
From where did the molecular oxygen in the earth's atmosphere originate?
  • carbon dioxide and water
  • troposphere, stratosphere, thermosphere, exosphere.
  • It has a slow rotation.
  • photosynthesis from life
How is the atmosphere of a planet affected by the rotation rate?
  • Water going down a drain swirls in opposite directions in the Northern and Southern hemispheres.
  • Its rotation axis is not tilted.
  • Ozone is broken apart by ultraviolet radiation.
  • Faster rotation rates produce stronger winds.
Which of the following is not caused by the Coriolis effect on Earth?
  • a change in the strength of the planet's magnetic field
  • Water going down a drain swirls in opposite directions in the Northern and Southern hemispheres.
  • Venus
  • mercury
Earth's stratosphere is heated primarily by which process?
  • Ozone is broken apart by ultraviolet radiation.
  • Burning releases carbon dioxide into the atmosphere
  • because it has a more eccentric orbit
  • carbon dioxide and water
What are greenhouse gases?
  • gases that absorb infrared light
  • highest layer in the atmosphere
  • because it has a more eccentric orbit
  • reactions that remove oxygen from the atmosphere, such as fire and rust
Of the four gases CO2, H2O, N2, and O2, which are greenhouse gases?
  • because it has a more eccentric orbit
  • carbon dioxide and water
  • It has a slow rotation.
  • Carbonate materials would form in the oceans more rapidly, the atmospheric carbon dioxide content would decrease, and the greenhouse effect would weaken.
What is the exosphere?
  • the carbon-rich remains of plants that died millions of years ago
  • Faster rotation rates produce stronger winds.
  • highest layer in the atmosphere
  • Light gases such as hydrogen move faster than heavier gases and escape from the earth's gravitational field.
Why does Venus have such a great difference in temperature between its "no atmosphere" temperature and its actual temperature?
  • a change in the strength of the planet's magnetic field
  • It has a large amount of greenhouse gases in its atmosphere.
  • It has a slow rotation.
  • Burning releases carbon dioxide into the atmosphere
Deuterium is more abundant on Venus than elsewhere in the solar system. What do we think this fact tells us about Venus?
  • a change in the strength of the planet's magnetic field
  • It has a large amount of greenhouse gases in its atmosphere.
  • Burning releases carbon dioxide into the atmosphere
  • It once had huge amounts of water in its atmosphere.
Convection occurs in the troposphere but not in the stratosphere because
  • Light gases such as hydrogen move faster than heavier gases and escape from the earth's gravitational field.
  • lower altitudes of the troposphere are warmer than higher altitudes, unlike in the stratosphere.
  • Water going down a drain swirls in opposite directions in the Northern and Southern hemispheres.
  • Faster rotation rates produce stronger winds.
Which of the following gases absorbs ultraviolet light best?
  • ozone
  • mercury
  • Venus
  • earth
What are fossil fuels?
  • the carbon-rich remains of plants that died millions of years ago
  • gases that absorb infrared light
  • highest layer in the atmosphere
  • reactions that remove oxygen from the atmosphere, such as fire and rust
Which of the following planets has an exosphere?
  • earth
  • a decreasing albedo
  • all of the above
  • oxygen
The proper order of the layers of a generic atmosphere from lowest altitude to highest is
  • troposphere, stratosphere, thermosphere, exosphere.
  • It once had huge amounts of water in its atmosphere.
  • Burning releases carbon dioxide into the atmosphere
  • photosynthesis from life
Which of the following factors could explain a gradual warming trend in a planet's climate?
  • all of the above
  • Water going down a drain swirls in opposite directions in the Northern and Southern hemispheres.
  • a decreasing albedo
  • a change in the strength of the planet's magnetic field
How does the greenhouse effect work?
  • Greenhouse gases transmit visible light, allowing it to heat the surface, but then absorb infrared light from the earth, trapping the heat near the surface.
  • Carbonate materials would form in the oceans more rapidly, the atmospheric carbon dioxide content would decrease, and the greenhouse effect would weaken.
  • Light gases such as hydrogen move faster than heavier gases and escape from the earth's gravitational field.
  • Burning releases carbon dioxide into the atmosphere
Why does the burning of fossil fuels increase the greenhouse effect on Earth?
  • because it has a more eccentric orbit
  • Warming would increase the evaporation of the oceans, leading to more water in the atmosphere and more frequent and severe storms.
  • Burning releases carbon dioxide into the atmosphere
  • It has a large amount of greenhouse gases in its atmosphere.
Why isn't the earth's atmosphere mostly hydrogen?
  • the water was lost when ultraviolet light broke apart water molecules and the hydrogen escaped to space.
  • Light gases such as hydrogen move faster than heavier gases and escape from the earth's gravitational field.
  • Warming would increase the evaporation of the oceans, leading to more water in the atmosphere and more frequent and severe storms.
  • Water going down a drain swirls in opposite directions in the Northern and Southern hemispheres.
The sky is blue because
  • reactions that remove oxygen from the atmosphere, such as fire and rust
  • highest layer in the atmosphere
  • molecules scatter blue light more effectively than red light.
  • gases that absorb infrared light
Which of the following worlds has the most substantial atmosphere?
  • Mercury
  • Venus
  • the Moon
  • Mars
  • Earth
Which of the following is not a product of outgassing
  • ozone
  • mercury
  • Venus
  • oxygen
In an active topology, each node helps to move data through a network.
  • Duplex
  • FALSE
  • TRUE
  • jam
A(n) ________ server is a server used to fulfill one specific purpose.
  • dedicated
  • file
  • firewall
  • client/server
data broken into a small segment with an address to which it is sent
  • FALSE
  • packet
  • protocol
  • bridge
set of common rules that control communications among network devices
  • token
  • protocol
  • CSMA/CD
  • router
In a ________ network, data collisions can occur fairly easily because the network is essentially composed of a single cable.
  • IP
  • Bus
  • cloud
  • Web
method used on Ethernet networks to avoid data collisions
  • packet
  • FALSE
  • terminator
  • CSMA/CD
A(n) ________ server is a heavily secured server located between a company's secure internal network and its firewall.
  • intranet
  • bastion host
  • dedicated
  • fiber-optic
software or hardware that prevents unauthorized entry
  • Fiber-optic
  • FALSE
  • Ethernet
  • firewall
sends data between different collision domains
  • FALSE
  • hybrid
  • router
  • bridge
special type of data packet
  • WAN
  • token
  • router
  • TRUE
Because of its centralized design, a(n) ________ topology is the simplest to troubleshoot and repair.
  • Spooler
  • TRUE
  • star
  • PAN
A library book reservation service is a good example of a use for a(n) ________ server.
  • dedicated
  • Database
  • firewall
  • Ethernet
A ________ is a group of two or more computers, or nodes, designed to share information and resources.
  • intranet
  • network
  • authentication
  • NOS
an operating system for network servers
  • network
  • NOS
  • honey pot
  • TRUE
A(n) ________ address is the address that external entities use when communicating with your network.
  • intranet
  • IP
  • peer-to-peer
  • cloud
adapter card that connects a computer to a network
  • web
  • NIC
  • MAN
  • cloud
network in which each node connected to the network communicates directly with every other node
  • VPN
  • LAN
  • P2P
  • star
NIC stands for ________.
  • unshielded twisted-pair
  • network interface card
  • terminator
  • Cable diameter
links users in a specific geographic area (usually a city)
  • FALSE
  • MAN
  • LAN
  • WAN
A ________ uses the Internet communications infrastructure to build a secure and private network.
  • LAN
  • WAN
  • VPN
  • IP
A(n) ________ server tracks who is logging on to the network as well as which services on the network are available to each user.
  • authentication
  • NOS
  • intranet
  • network
Crosstalk interference is the tendency of signals on one twisted-pair wire to interfere with signals on the wire next to it.
  • TRUE
  • token
  • frame
  • FALSE
________ interference is a type of network interference for cable transmission media that can be caused by nearby television or radio signals.
  • intranet
  • Fiber-optic
  • Ethernet
  • Radio frequency/RF
A(n) ________ provides wireless devices with a sending and receiving connection point to the network.
  • wireless access point/WAP
  • access card reader/card reader
  • peer-to-peer
  • bastion host
a server not physically located at a company's site
  • router
  • hybrid
  • loop
  • cloud
The computers in a lab on a floor of a building would be connected using a ________.
  • LAN
  • PAN
  • WAN
  • MAN
Ring networks use the ________ method to avoid data collisions.
  • protocol
  • token
  • loop
  • Spooler
used for internal identification on a network
  • fiber-optic
  • MAC address
  • Cable diameter
  • client/server
A(n) ________ is used exclusively by a select group of employees, customers, suppliers, volunteers, or supporters.
  • intranet
  • bastion host
  • Ethernet
  • dedicated
keeps track of user logins to the network and which services are available to each user
  • dedicated
  • authentication
  • protocol
  • Cable diameter
________ technology places data packets inside other data packets.
  • Tunneling
  • bridge
  • protocol
  • Fiber-optic
A ________ sends data between two networks.
  • client/server
  • Tunneling
  • file
  • router
Fluorescent lights and machinery with motors or transformers are common sources of ________ emissions.
  • wireless access point/WAP
  • extranet
  • Electromagnetic interference/EMI
  • access card reader/card reader
Packet ________ is a form of protection for your computer that looks at each packet that comes into your computer network.
  • firewall
  • peer-to-peer
  • screening
  • intranet
A ________ network can contain servers as well as individual computers.
  • router
  • client/server
  • firewall
  • bridge
________ is the process that requires users to prove that they have permission to access a computer network.
  • Ethernet
  • bastion host
  • Scalability
  • Authentication
________ means that additional users can easily be added without affecting the performance of the other network nodes.
  • Scalability
  • bastion host
  • Authentication
  • Fiber-optic
Which of the following is NOT a factor to consider when selecting network cabling?
  • client/server
  • Cable diameter
  • Star
  • Cluster
A(n) ________ server is used to host an Internet site.
  • Web
  • MAN
  • extranet
  • router
A(n) ________ server acts as a liaison between an internal network and an external network.
  • application
  • TRUE
  • proxy
  • NOS
P2P networks become difficult to manage when they exceed five users.
  • FALSE
  • router
  • packet
  • cloud
Which of the following is the most commonly used client/server network topology?
  • Star
  • PAN
  • TRUE
  • LAN
acts as a repository for application software
  • proxy
  • network
  • application
  • authentication
________ is the standard communications protocol used on most client/server networks.
  • intranet
  • protocol
  • firewall
  • Ethernet
In a ________ network, each node connected to the network communicates directly with every other node.
  • Fiber-optic
  • intranet
  • router
  • peer-to-peer
MAC addresses and IP addresses are the same thing.
  • FALSE
  • file
  • MAN
  • router
For business networks, which of the following is NOT a main cable type?
  • Duplex
  • hybrid
  • router
  • FALSE
________ cable is NOT subject to electromagnetic interference or radio frequency interference.
  • VPN
  • Bandwidth
  • Radio frequency/RF
  • Fiber-optic
device that absorbs a signal so that it is not reflected back
  • CSMA/CD
  • dedicated
  • terminator
  • protocol
A ________ sends data from one collision domain to another.
  • hybrid
  • router
  • dedicated
  • bridge
allows client computers to access a database
  • protocol
  • FALSE
  • Ethernet
  • database
A(n) ________ cable contains a glass or plastic core.
  • client/server
  • peer-to-peer
  • dedicated
  • fiber-optic
a network in a small geographic area
  • LAN
  • WAN
  • PAN
  • MAN
A(n) ________ is a device that reads information from a magnetic strip on the back of a credit card-like identification card.
  • bastion host
  • dedicated
  • access card reader/card reader
  • wireless access point/WAP
Data flows in both directions in a ring network.
  • file
  • FALSE
  • database
  • packet
Worms often try to disguise from where they are sending data by using a bogus IP addresses instead of using an authorized IP address belonging to the network.
  • TRUE
  • FALSE
  • jam
  • Duplex
An international company like Microsoft would use a MAN to connect all of its computers.
  • FALSE
  • Database
  • TRUE
  • packet
A facial-recognition scanner is an example of a biometric authentication device.
  • FALSE
  • bridge
  • TRUE
  • file
network of two or more LANs
  • star
  • frame
  • token
  • WAN
Configuring an account to disable itself after a set number of login attempts using invalid passwords is a method of countering a ________.
  • network
  • authentication
  • brute force attack
  • FALSE
makes decisions as to where data are to be sent and rebroadcasts them to the appropriate node
  • router
  • protocol
  • CSMA/CD
  • switch
A(n) ________ server is maintained by a hosting company and is connected to networks using the Internet.
  • extranet
  • cloud
  • peer-to-peer
  • wireless access point/WAP
computer system designed to attract unauthorized users
  • honey pot
  • authentication
  • firewall
  • network
Most home networks use ________ cable, which is most susceptible to interference.
  • client/server
  • unshielded twisted-pair
  • Cable diameter
  • media access control (MAC)
Wireless access points can provide coverage wherever employees are working with portable devices, such as in conference rooms.
  • token
  • TRUE
  • FALSE
  • Bus
A ________ is a set of rules for how information and communication are exchanged.
  • Ethernet
  • firewall
  • protocol
  • dedicated
What is the source of variability in the response of smooth muscle cells from different organs to autonomic nervous activity (some relax to sympathetic nervous output while others contract)?
  • the type of receptor present on the effector organ
  • the myosin head to detach from actin
  • Z line : anchors the thin filaments together
  • sarcomere : the functional unit of muscle contraction whose length is changed as a muscle shortensand lengthens
In order for crossbridge cycling to occur, the actin-myosin complex must be broken by which of the following?
  • the sarcomeres shortening
  • binding of ATP to myosin
  • myosin light-chain kinase.
  • slide past one another.
The two types of sensory endings found in muscle spindles are the annulospiral endings and
  • the sarcomeres shortening
  • troponin.
  • flower-spray endings.
  • motor end plate
What type of receptor detects muscle length?
  • oxidative
  • muscle spindle
  • antagonist.
  • glycolytic
In order to allow discrete contractile events to occur, calcium is rapidly removed from the cytoplasm via
  • calcium pumps (active transport of calcium).
  • binding of ATP to myosin
  • Each muscle fiber is innervated by multiple motor neurons.
  • Alpha and gamma motor neurons are activated at the same time.
What structure, composed of connective tissue, transmits force from contracting skeletal muscle to bone?
  • I band
  • tendon
  • titin
  • H zone
What is the functional unit of skeletal muscle?
  • relaxation
  • muscle spindle
  • sarcomeres
  • troponin
Postural muscles of the legs and back tend to have a high proportion of what fiber type?
  • power stroke
  • smooth muscle
  • Slow oxidative fibers are quick to fatigue.
  • slow oxidative
Mechanisms whereby force of skeletal muscle fibers can be altered include all of the following EXCEPT
  • increasing the load on the muscle.
  • conversion of myosin ATPase type.
  • dihydropyridine receptor
  • skeletal muscle only
The speed with which the skeletal muscle generates force is determined primarily by
  • H zone : area of myosin not overlapped by actin
  • the type of receptor present on the effector organ
  • presence of myoglobin
  • the type of myosin and its ATPase present.
What is the site where a muscle attaches to a stationary bone called?
  • troponin
  • titin
  • origin
  • tropomyosin
Which type of skeletal muscle fiber contains myoglobin?
  • oxidative
  • slow
  • fast
  • A band
What is an increase in the number of active motor units that would increase the force developed by a skeletal muscle called?
  • recruitment
  • myosin in smooth muscle only
  • titin
  • relaxation
What is the protein component of the thin filament that blocks the myosin-binding site on the actin monomer?
  • troponin
  • titin
  • tropomyosin
  • sarcomeres
What anchors thin filaments together?
  • I band
  • origin
  • Z line
  • M line
Which of the following contains nicotinic cholinergic receptors?
  • sarcoplasmic reticulum
  • motor end plate
  • recruitment
  • transverse tubules
The time between the occurrence of an action potential in skeletal muscle and the onset of tension is called what?
  • asynchronous
  • recruitment
  • latent period
  • slow oxidative
What causes some muscle fibers to appear red and dark?
  • sarcoplasmic reticulum
  • skeletal, smooth, and cardiac muscle
  • presence of myoglobin
  • skeletal muscle only
Which of the following best describes an isotonic contraction?
  • When the contractile elements shorten, they create enough force to move the load.
  • poor ability to produce ATP in the absence of oxygen
  • A band
  • an increase in the diameter of the skeletal muscle fibers
Which of the following contains ryanodine receptors?
  • transverse tubules
  • spontaneous opening of sodium channels
  • sarcoplasmic reticulum
  • smooth muscle
Which of the following is not part of the process whereby skeletal muscles relax?
  • slow oxidative : fast oxidative : fast glycolytic
  • Sarcolemmal calcium channels open to allow the efflux of calcium.
  • They contract by using the sliding filament mechanism and crossbridge cycling.
  • The crossbridges can become resistant to ATP.
Which type of skeletal muscle fiber is white muscle?
  • slow
  • glycolytic
  • oxidative
  • tendons
Heavy intensity exercise generates what byproduct that contributes to fatigue?
  • origin
  • 3, 5, and 6
  • lactic acid
  • oxidative
What is the region of the striated muscle's banding patterns that contains only the connections between the tails of myosin molecules and is the mid-point of the sarcomere?
  • troponin
  • M line : where the tails of the myosin molecules are bound to one another
  • M line
  • titin
Which of the following mechanisms does NOT account for the decrease in force development by muscle cells during sustained force development?
  • Load is greater than the force generated by the muscle.
  • spontaneous opening of sodium channels
  • dihydropyridine receptor
  • The crossbridges can become resistant to ATP.
Which of the following does NOT influence the force generated by an individual muscle fiber?
  • slow oxidative : fast oxidative : fast glycolytic
  • summation
  • recruitment
  • poor ability to produce ATP in the absence of oxygen
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding activation of alpha and gamma motor neurons?
  • poor ability to produce ATP in the absence of oxygen
  • Alpha and gamma motor neurons are activated at the same time.
  • H zone : area of myosin not overlapped by actin
  • Load is less than the force generated by the muscle.
Where does calcium bind to troponin?
  • skeletal and cardiac muscle only
  • skeletal, smooth, and cardiac muscle
  • both single-unit smooth muscle and cardiac muscle
  • spontaneous opening of sodium channels
What is an annulospiral ending?
  • a motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates
  • slow oxidative, fast oxidative, and fast glycolytic
  • H zone : area of myosin not overlapped by actin
  • sensory endings in the muscle spindle that detect muscle length
Which of the following stores calcium to be released for muscle contraction?
  • motor end plate
  • Each muscle fiber is innervated by multiple motor neurons.
  • sarcoplasmic reticulum
  • an increase in the number of myofibrils per muscle fiber
What is the structure indicated by the number 5 in Figure 12.1 and what its functional significance?
  • Sarcolemmal calcium channels open to allow the efflux of calcium.
  • sarcomere : the functional unit of muscle contraction whose length is changed as a muscle shortensand lengthens
  • M line : where the tails of the myosin molecules are bound to one another
  • Z line : anchors the thin filaments together
During skeletal muscle contraction, multiple crossbridge cycles are occurring between the same thick and thin filament. Which of the following best describes this process?
  • dihydropyridine receptor : ryanodine receptor
  • Crossbridge cycling is asynchronous between a certain thick and thin filament.
  • The crossbridges can become resistant to ATP.
  • the type of receptor present on the effector organ
What is the structure indicated by the number 3 in Figure 12.1 and what is its functional significance?
  • H zone : area of myosin not overlapped by actin
  • I band : area of actin not having a crossbridge
  • slow oxidative, fast oxidative, and fast glycolytic
  • Z line : anchors the thin filaments together
The mechanism responsible for the size principle involves
  • Sarcolemmal calcium channels open to allow the efflux of calcium.
  • They contract by using the sliding filament mechanism and crossbridge cycling.
  • smaller motor neurons that innervate the least number of muscle cells and reach threshold easier thanlarger neurons.
  • the type of myosin and its ATPase present.
What converts the myosin head into the high-energy state?
  • the hydrolysis of ATP
  • gamma motor neurons
  • troponin (calmodulin?)
  • transverse tubules
Which of the following generates the mechanical force of a muscle through crossbridge cycling?
  • actin and myosin
  • more sarcomeres in parallel
  • summation
  • A band
What is the regulatory protein component of the thin filament that binds to calcium, thereby initiating skeletal muscle contraction?
  • tendons
  • troponin.
  • troponin
  • I band
What region of thick filaments has no overlap with thin filaments?
  • A band
  • H zone
  • M line
  • gamma
During skeletal muscle contraction, as the muscle shortens, the thick and thin filaments
  • slide past one another.
  • more sarcomeres in parallel
  • slow oxidative
  • sarcoplasmic reticulum
The shortening of a skeletal muscle fiber during contraction involves which of the following?
  • T-Tubules (motor end plate?)
  • more sarcomeres in parallel
  • the sarcomeres shortening
  • myosin light-chain kinase.
Which of the following attaches muscle to bone?
  • When the contractile elements shorten, they create enough force to move the load.
  • titin
  • tendons
  • sarcoplasmic reticulum
Troponin is a complex of three proteins that bind to tropomyosin, calcium, and
  • motor
  • actin.
  • troponin.
  • A band
In smooth muscle, calcium triggers contraction by binding to what protein?
  • skeletal and cardiac muscle only
  • calmodulin
  • lactic acid
  • tropomyosin
In the body, the sarcomere length of skeletal muscle cells is usually
  • oxidative
  • glycolytic
  • near optimal.
  • recruitment
A skeletal muscle is composed of a bundle of ________, each composed of many muscle fibers wrapped by connective tissue
  • oxidative
  • fascicles
  • troponin
  • sarcomeres
Since the creatine phosphorylation reaction is substrate driven, an increase in the concentration of creatine within a skeletal muscle fiber will directly have what effect?
  • increasing the load on the muscle.
  • I band : area of actin not having a crossbridge
  • an increase in the number of myofibrils per muscle fiber
  • increase creatine phosphate concentration
During intense (heavy) exercise, the initial ability of oxidative phosphorylation to provide enough ATP for the sudden demand of increased force generation by the skeletal muscle is ________, thereby causing the muscle fiber to quickly and massively boost its energy production from ________ until oxygen delivery and other mechanisms come up to speed.
  • an increase in the diameter of the skeletal muscle fibers
  • Each muscle fiber is innervated by multiple motor neurons.
  • increasing the load on the muscle.
  • inadequate : substrate-level phosphorylation
Which protein binds calcium in smooth muscle cells?
  • sarcomeres
  • glycolytic
  • calmodulin
  • gamma motor neurons
What is the function of T tubules?
  • Sarcolemmal calcium channels open to allow the efflux of calcium.
  • They conduct action potentials from the sarcolemma to the interior of the muscle cell.
  • the type of receptor present on the effector organ
  • H zone : area of myosin not overlapped by actin
Which structure(s) in Figure 12.1 would be altered by muscle shortening?
  • glycolytic
  • 3, 5, and 6
  • skeletal and cardiac muscle only
  • sarcoplasmic reticulum
Which of the following is true of ALL muscle types?
  • large motor neurons : large motor unit : last to be recruited
  • They contract by using the sliding filament mechanism and crossbridge cycling.
  • Each muscle fiber is innervated by multiple motor neurons.
  • The crossbridges can become resistant to ATP.
In smooth muscle, the structures analogous to Z lines in skeletal muscle are called
  • slide past one another.
  • dense bodies.
  • flower-spray endings.
  • actin and myosin
What type of efferent neuron innervates intrafusal muscle fibers?
  • sarcoplasmic reticulum
  • glycolytic
  • gamma motor neurons
  • flower-spray endings.
Contraction of skeletal muscle fibers is stimulated by what type of neuron?
  • gamma
  • calmodulin
  • I band
  • motor
Gap junctions are present between which cells?
  • smooth and cardiac muscle only
  • motor end plate
  • presence of myoglobin
  • sarcoplasmic reticulum
In smooth muscle, calcium binds to calmodulin and then activates the enzyme
  • skeletal and cardiac muscle only
  • slow oxidative
  • myosin light-chain kinase.
  • flower-spray endings.
Which of the following is NOT a property of glycolytic fibers as compared to oxidative fibers?
  • Sarcolemmal calcium channels open to allow the efflux of calcium.
  • Each muscle fiber is innervated by multiple motor neurons.
  • slow oxidative : fast oxidative : fast glycolytic
  • poor ability to produce ATP in the absence of oxygen
The contractile portion of the thin filament is composed of what protein?
  • motor
  • actin
  • A band
  • actin.
What is the structure indicated by the number 2 in Figure 12.1 and what is its functional significance?
  • Z line : anchors the thin filaments together
  • myosin light-chain kinase
  • an increase in the diameter of the skeletal muscle fibers
  • tropomyosin
Which of the following is NOT an adaptation of skeletal muscle that would be observed in response to aerobic training?
  • an increase in the diameter of the skeletal muscle fibers
  • The crossbridges can become resistant to ATP.
  • an increase in the number of myofibrils per muscle fiber
  • Alpha and gamma motor neurons are activated at the same time.
What are the three types of muscle fibers that are found in all skeletal muscles?
  • slow oxidative, fast oxidative, and fast glycolytic
  • poor ability to produce ATP in the absence of oxygen
  • slow oxidative
  • Sarcolemmal calcium channels open to allow the efflux of calcium.
Which of the following appears as dark bands under the microscope?
  • A band
  • Load is greater than the force generated by the muscle.
  • 3, 5, and 6
  • smooth muscle
Which of the following statements about summation and tetanus is FALSE?
  • Each muscle fiber is innervated by multiple motor neurons.
  • When the contractile elements shorten, they create enough force to move the load.
  • The maximum tension developed during summation and tetanus is treppe.
  • Load is greater than the force generated by the muscle.
A muscle is stimulated at a frequency that allows the muscle to relax completely between contractions. However, the amount of tension increases with each contraction. What is this called?
  • transverse tubule
  • actin.
  • treppe
  • tendon
Which muscles are innervated by autonomic nervous system?
  • skeletal and cardiac muscle only
  • actin and myosin
  • smooth and cardiac muscle only.
  • smooth and cardiac muscle only
What area of a sarcomere shows up as light striations when viewed under a microscope?
  • titin
  • A band
  • I band
  • M line
Which of the following is NOT a specialization observed at the neuromuscular junction?
  • an increase in the diameter of the skeletal muscle fibers
  • They contract by using the sliding filament mechanism and crossbridge cycling.
  • Each muscle fiber is innervated by multiple motor neurons.
  • large motor neurons : large motor unit : last to be recruited
Which of the following is NOT an accurate description of specific muscle fiber types?
  • Slow oxidative fibers are quick to fatigue.
  • poor ability to produce ATP in the absence of oxygen
  • Alpha and gamma motor neurons are activated at the same time.
  • an increase in the number of myofibrils per muscle fiber
The continuation of the sarcolemma that penetrates the interior of the muscle fiber and thereby facilitates the release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum is called what?
  • increase creatine phosphate concentration
  • power stroke
  • transverse tubule
  • actin and myosin
Which of the following is a property of isotonic skeletal muscle contraction?
  • poor ability to produce ATP in the absence of oxygen
  • Load is less than the force generated by the muscle.
  • an increase in the number of myofibrils per muscle fiber
  • slow oxidative : fast oxidative : fast glycolytic
Relative to the triceps muscle, the biceps is its
  • antagonist.
  • the hydrolysis of ATP
  • oxidative
  • dense bodies.
Which type of skeletal muscle fiber catalyzes hydrolysis of ATP slowly?
  • gamma
  • slow
  • origin
  • oxidative
What is a motor unit?
  • I band : area of actin not having a crossbridge
  • a motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates
  • A band : length of myosin attached to an M line
  • an increase in the number of myofibrils per muscle fiber
What anchors thick filaments together?
  • fatigue
  • M line
  • creatine kinase
  • tendon
Calcium is stored in what region of skeletal muscle cells?
  • sarcomeres
  • smooth and cardiac muscle only.
  • skeletal muscle only
  • sarcoplasmic reticulum
Which type of skeletal muscle fiber fatigues rapidly?
  • muscle spindle
  • glycolytic
  • sarcomeres
  • oxidative
The binding of calcium to troponin will directly allow which of the following?
  • the thin filaments are pulled away from the thick filaments, thereby reducing actin's ability to interactwith myosin.
  • binding of ATP to myosin
  • They conduct action potentials from the sarcolemma to the interior of the muscle cell.
  • the movement of tropomyosin, thereby exposing the myosin-binding site on the actin molecule
What is the structure indicated by the number 6 in Figure 12.1 and what is its functional significance?
  • poor ability to produce ATP in the absence of oxygen
  • H zone : area of myosin not overlapped by actin
  • I band : area of actin not having a crossbridge
  • Slow oxidative fibers are quick to fatigue.
Which of the following could cause a pacemaker potential?
  • slow oxidative : fast oxidative : fast glycolytic
  • sarcoplasmic reticulum
  • spontaneous opening of sodium channels
  • skeletal, smooth, and cardiac muscle
Which of the following adaptations does NOT generally occur with aerobic exercise?
  • Load is less than the force generated by the muscle.
  • an increase in the diameter of the skeletal muscle fibers
  • an increase in the number of myofibrils per muscle fiber
  • dihydropyridine receptor
What is the region of thin filaments that has no overlap with thick filaments called?
  • H zone
  • I band
  • A band
  • actin.
Which of the following statements about end-plate potentials is FALSE?
  • equivalent activation of calmodulin stimulating myosin light-chain kinase activity
  • They are a result of acetylcholine binding to muscarinic cholinergic receptors.
  • Load is less than the force generated by the muscle.
  • Sarcolemmal calcium channels open to allow the efflux of calcium.
The repeated, oscillating interaction between actin and myosin which results in the generation of force by a skeletal muscle cell is called what?
  • increasing the load on the muscle.
  • dihydropyridine receptor
  • fatigue
  • crossbridge cycling
What are the elastic fibers that anchor thick filaments in place?
  • titin
  • I band
  • gamma
  • Z line
In which muscle type do thick and thin filaments organize into sarcomeres?
  • myosin light-chain kinase.
  • smooth and cardiac muscle only
  • skeletal and cardiac muscle only
  • 3, 5, and 6
Which of the following is the property of skeletal muscle whereby an increase in the frequency of action potentials enhances the force developed by the muscle cell?
  • summation
  • titin
  • actin and myosin
  • dihydropyridine receptor
What enzyme catalyzes the reaction that creates creatine phosphate?
  • near optimal.
  • gamma motor neurons
  • presence of myoglobin
  • creatine kinase
As skeletal muscle is further stretched beyond the length where optimum force is developed,
  • the thin filaments are pulled away from the thick filaments, thereby reducing actin's ability to interactwith myosin.
  • the type of myosin and its ATPase present.
  • An action potential in the sarcolemma stimulates the opening of voltage-gated calcium channels in theplasma membrane and the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
  • M line : where the tails of the myosin molecules are bound to one another
What is the enzyme that modulates the ability of myosin to bind actin in smooth muscle?
  • the myosin head to detach from actin
  • H zone : area of myosin not overlapped by actin
  • Slow oxidative fibers are quick to fatigue.
  • myosin light-chain kinase
Some muscle cells have pacemaker activity. These include
  • smooth and cardiac muscle only.
  • smooth and cardiac muscle only
  • sarcoplasmic reticulum
  • skeletal and cardiac muscle only
Which of the following best describes the interaction between transverse (T) tubules and the sarcoplasmic reticulum in skeletal muscle contraction?
  • An action potential in the sarcolemma stimulates the opening of voltage-gated calcium channels in theplasma membrane and the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
  • Action potentials in T tubules are detected by DHP receptors, which are coupled to ryanodine receptors in the sarcoplasmic reticulum and open channels for calcium.
  • equivalent activation of calmodulin stimulating myosin light-chain kinase activity
  • The crossbridges can become resistant to ATP.
Which of the following statements about excitation-contraction coupling in skeletal muscle is FALSE?
  • When the contractile elements shorten, they create enough force to move the load.
  • slow oxidative : fast oxidative : fast glycolytic
  • titin
  • An action potential in the sarcolemma stimulates the opening of voltage-gated calcium channels in theplasma membrane and the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
What type of motor neuron innervates intrafusal muscle fibers?
  • fast
  • titin
  • creatine kinase
  • gamma
Which type of skeletal muscle fiber has most of its energy come from substrate-level phosphorylation?
  • glycolytic
  • muscle spindle
  • smooth muscle
  • dihydropyridine receptor
What is the antagonistic muscle to the triceps?
  • I band
  • biceps
  • tendons
  • A band
The three proteins found to make up the thin filaments are actin, tropomyosin, and
  • tropomyosin
  • troponin.
  • antagonist.
  • troponin
Increases in the amount of cytoplasmic calcium required to initiate a muscle contraction are mediated by the coupling between a ________ on the T tubule and a ________ on the membrane of the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
  • increase creatine phosphate concentration
  • slow oxidative, fast oxidative, and fast glycolytic
  • dihydropyridine receptor : ryanodine receptor
  • H zone : area of myosin not overlapped by actin
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