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CBSE Questions for Class 12 Commerce Applied Mathematics Probability Distribution And Its Mean And Variance Quiz 7 - MCQExams.com
CBSE
Class 12 Commerce Applied Mathematics
Probability Distribution And Its Mean And Variance
Quiz 7
The probability distribution of a discrete random variable X is given below.
The value of K is
Report Question
0%
8
0%
16
0%
32
0%
48
Explanation
We know that,
∑
p
(
x
)
=
1
⇒
5
k
+
7
k
+
9
k
+
11
k
=
1
⇒
32
k
=
1
∴
K
=
32
For the following probability distribution
E
(
X
2
)
Report Question
0%
3
0%
5
0%
7
0%
10
Explanation
E
(
X
2
)
=
∑
X
2
P
(
X
)
=
1
⋅
1
10
+
4
⋅
1
5
+
9
⋅
3
10
+
16
⋅
2
5
=
1
10
+
4
5
+
27
10
+
32
5
1
+
8
+
27
+
64
10
=
10
Two cards are drawn randomly from a well-shuffled deck of
52
cards. If
X
denotes the number of aces, then find mean of
X
:
Report Question
0%
5
13
0%
1
13
0%
37
221
0%
2
13
Explanation
Two cards are drawn randomly from
52
cards, firstly number of total ways that two cards are not an ace.
=
48
C
2
=
48
×
47
2
=
1128
Number of ways drawing
2
cards out of
52
cards
=
52
C
2
=
52
×
51
2
=
1326
P
(
X
=
0
)
. Probably that no ace is not drawn
=
1128
1326
Secondly number of ways that there is an ace and there is no ace out of
=
4
C
1
×
48
C
1
=
4
×
48
=
192
P
(
X
=
1
)
, Probably that there is an ace and there is no ace
=
192
1326
P
(
X
=
2
)
, Probably of getting two aces
=
6
1326
Probability distribution is:
X
0
1
2
P
(
X
)
1128
1326
192
1326
6
1326
∑
X
i
=
∑
p
i
x
i
=
1128
1326
×
0
+
192
1326
×
1
+
6
1326
×
2
=
192
1326
+
12
1326
=
2
13
A random variable
X
, takes the values
0
,
1
,
2
and
3
. Mean of
X
is
P
(
x
=
3
)
=
2
P
(
x
=
1
)
and
P
(
x
=
2
)
=
0.3
, then
P
(
x
=
0
)
is{
Report Question
0%
0.2
0%
0.4
0%
0.3
0%
0.1
Explanation
Let
P
(
X
=
3
)
=
2
p
(
X
=
1
)
=
p
P
(
X
=
3
)
=
p
and
P
(
X
=
1
)
=
p
2
Also
P
(
X
=
2
)
=
0.3
(given)
Let
P
(
X
=
0
)
=
x
Probability distribution is:
X
0
1
2
3
P
(
X
)
x
p
2
0.3
p
From table
∑
X
i
=
M
e
a
n
=
∑
p
i
x
i
∑
p
i
⇒
1.3
=
x
×
0
+
1
×
p
2
+
2
×
0.3
+
3
×
p
⇒
1.3
=
p
2
+
0.6
+
3
p
⇒
2.6
=
p
+
6
p
+
1.2
⇒
7
p
=
1.4
⇒
p
=
1.4
7
=
0.2
Sum of probabilities
=
1
x
+
p
2
+
0.3
+
p
=
1
⇒
x
+
0.1
+
0.3
+
0.2
=
1
⇒
x
=
1
−
0.6
⇒
x
=
0.4
P
(
X
=
0
)
=
0.4
A random variable
X
has the probability distribution
X
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
P
(
X
)
0.15
0.23
0.12
0.10
0.20
0.08
0.07
0.05
For the events,
E
=
{
X
is a prime number
}
and
F
=
X
<
4
, the probability
P
(
E
∪
F
)
is
Report Question
0%
0.87
0%
0.77
0%
0.35
0%
0.50
Explanation
From the given values, prime numbers and the values less than
4
are
1
,
2
,
3
,
5
,
7
So,
P
(
E
∪
F
)
will be the sum of probabilities of each of the above selected values of
X
So,
P
(
E
∪
F
)
=
0.15
+
0.23
+
0.12
+
0.20
+
0.07
=
0.77
Suppose
X
is a random variable which takes values
0
,
1
,
2
,
3
,
.
.
.
and
P
(
X
=
r
)
=
p
q
r
where
0
<
p
<
1
,
q
=
1
−
p
and
r
=
0
,
1
,
2
,
.
.
.
, Then
Report Question
0%
P
(
X
≥
n
)
=
q
n
0%
P
(
X
≥
m
+
n
|
X
≥
m
+
n
|
X
≥
m
)
=
P
(
X
≥
n
)
0%
P
(
X
=
m
+
n
|
X
≥
m
+
n
|
X
≥
m
)
=
P
(
X
=
n
)
0%
None of these
Explanation
P
(
X
≥
n
)
=
∞
∑
k
=
n
P
(
X
=
k
)
=
p
q
n
1
−
q
=
q
n
P
(
X
≥
m
+
n
|
X
≥
m
)
=
P
(
X
≥
m
+
n
)
P
(
X
≥
m
)
=
q
m
+
n
q
m
=
q
n
P
(
X
=
m
+
n
|
X
≥
m
)
=
P
(
X
=
m
+
n
)
P
(
X
≥
m
)
=
p
q
n
.
In a series of 3 independent trials, the probability of exactly 2 success is 12 times as large as the probability of 3 successes. The probability of a success in each trail is
Report Question
0%
1
5
0%
2
5
0%
3
5
0%
4
5
Explanation
For a binomial experiment consisting of n trials, the probability of exactly
k successes is
P
(
k
successes
)
=
n
C
k
p
k
(
1
−
p
)
n
−
k
where the probability of success on each trial is p.
According to the question,
n
=
3
,
,
P
(
2 successes
)
=
12
×
P
(
3 successes
)
To find:
The probability of a success in each trail, p
P
(
2 successes
)
=
12
×
P
(
3 successes
)
⟹
3
C
2
p
2
(
1
−
p
)
3
−
2
=
12
×
3
C
3
p
3
(
1
−
p
)
3
−
3
⟹
3
×
p
2
(
1
−
p
)
1
=
12
×
1
×
p
3
(
1
−
p
)
0
⟹
3
p
2
−
3
p
3
=
12
p
3
Divide throughout by
3
p
2
, we get
1
−
p
=
4
p
⟹
5
p
=
1
⟹
p
=
1
5
A random variable
x
assumes values which are numbers of the form
n
n
+
1
and
n
+
1
n
, where
n
=
1
,
2
,
3
,
.
.
.
. lf
P
(
x
=
n
n
+
1
)
=
P
(
x
=
n
+
1
n
)
=
(
1
2
)
n
+
1
, then
Report Question
0%
P
(
x
<
1
)
=
P
(
x
>
1
)
0%
P
(
1
/
2
<
x
<
1
)
<
P
(
x
>
1
)
0%
P
(
x
>
3
/
2
)
<
P
(
x
<
1
)
0%
P
(
x
>
3
/
2
)
=
0
Explanation
The numbers of the form
n
n
+
1
are less than 1 and
n
+
1
n
are greater than 1.
P
(
x
<
1
)
=
P
(
1
2
)
+
P
(
2
3
)
+
.
.
.
⇒
P
(
x
<
1
)
=
1
4
+
1
8
+
.
.
.
⇒
P
(
x
<
1
)
=
1
4
1
−
1
2
⇒
P
(
x
<
1
)
=
1
2
P
(
x
>
1
)
=
1
2
P
(
1
2
<
x
<
1
)
=
P
(
2
3
)
+
P
(
3
4
)
+
.
.
.
P
(
1
2
<
x
<
1
)
=
1
8
+
1
16
+
.
.
.
P
(
1
2
<
x
<
1
)
=
1
4
P
(
x
>
3
2
)
=
P
(
x
=
2
)
P
(
x
>
3
2
)
=
1
4
P
(
x
>
3
2
)
=
1
4
]
∴
P
(
x
<
1
)
=
P
(
x
>
1
)
P
(
1
/
2
<
x
<
1
)
<
P
(
x
>
1
)
P
(
x
>
3
/
2
)
<
P
(
x
<
1
)
If the range of a random variable
X
is
{
0
,
1
,
2
,
3
,
…
…
}
with
P
(
X
=
k
)
=
(
k
+
1
)
(
a
)
3
k
for sample of
4
items is drawn at random without
k
≥
0
, then
a
=
Report Question
0%
2
/
3
0%
4
/
9
0%
8
/
27
0%
16
/
81
Explanation
Use the concept of probability distribution function,
∞
∑
k
=
0
(
P
(
X
=
k
)
)
=
1
So,
∞
∑
k
=
0
(
k
+
1
)
a
3
k
=
a
∞
∑
k
=
0
(
k
3
k
+
1
3
k
)
∞
∑
k
=
0
k
3
k
=
1
3
+
2
3
2
+
3
3
3
+
.
.
.
.
.
.
.
=
1
3
+
2
3
2
+
3
3
3
+
.
.
.
.
.
.
.
=
1
3
(
1
+
2
3
+
3
3
2
+
4
3
3
+
.
.
.
.
.
)
Use the Taylor series
1
(
1
−
x
)
2
=
1
+
2
x
+
3
x
2
+
4
x
3
+
.
.
.
.
.
.
.
.
.
.
.
Let us assume that
x
=
1
3
∞
∑
k
=
0
k
3
k
=
1
3
(
1
−
1
3
)
2
=
3
4
The second Summation will be infinite Geometric Sequence where
a
=
1
3
and
r
=
1
3
∞
∑
k
=
0
1
3
k
=
1
+
1
3
1
−
1
3
=
3
2
Therefore,
∞
∑
k
=
0
(
P
(
X
=
k
)
)
=
1
(
3
4
+
3
2
)
×
a
=
1
Hence,
a
=
4
9
If
P
(
u
i
)
∝
i
, where
i
=
1
,
2
,
3
,
…
n
, then
lim
is equal to
Report Question
0%
1
0%
\displaystyle \frac{2}{3}
0%
\displaystyle \frac{3}{4}
0%
\displaystyle \frac{1}{4}
Explanation
Here
\mathrm{P}(\mathrm{u}_{\mathrm{i}})=\mathrm{k}\mathrm{i}
\Sigma \mathrm{P}(\mathrm{u}_{\mathrm{i}})=1
\displaystyle \Rightarrow \mathrm{k}=\frac{2}{\mathrm{n}(\mathrm{n}+1)}
\displaystyle \lim_{\mathrm{n}\rightarrow\infty}\mathrm{P}(\mathrm{w})=\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\sum_{{i}=1}^{n}P(\frac{w}{u_i})p(u_i)=\lim_{\mathrm{n}\rightarrow\infty}\sum_{\mathrm{i}=1}^{\mathrm{n}}\frac{2\mathrm{i}^{2}}{\mathrm{n}(\mathrm{n}+1)^{2}}=\lim_{\mathrm{n}\rightarrow\infty}\frac{2\mathrm{n}(\mathrm{n}+1)(2\mathrm{n}+1)}{\mathrm{n}(\mathrm{n}+1)^{2}6}=\frac{2}{3}
A fair coin is tossed
99
times. If X is the number of times heads occur then P(X = r) is maximum when r is
Report Question
0%
49
0%
50
0%
51
0%
none of these
Explanation
Notice that x has binomial distribution with n = 99, p = q = 0.5.
Therefore the probability
P(x=r)=^nC_rP^rq^{n-r}\\\implies P(x=r)=^nC_r(0.5)^r(0.5)^{n-r}=^{n}C_r(0.5)^n
Thus maximum of P(x = r) corresponds to the value of r with maximal
^nC_r=\dfrac {n!}{r!(n-r)!}
Notice that binomial coefficients are symmetric:
^nC_r=^{n-r}C_r=\dfrac {n!}{r!(n-r)!}
hence the maximum corresponds to the points most closest to
\dfrac n2
Since n is odd, there are two such values:
r_1=\dfrac {n-1}2=\dfrac {98}2=49, r_2=\dfrac {n+1}2=\dfrac {100}2=50
For these numbers the function P(x = r) has maximum.
Let numbers
1,2,3...4n
be pasted on
4n
blocks. The probability of drawing a number is proportional to
r
, then the probability of drawing an even number in one draw is
\left ( n\in N \right )
Report Question
0%
\displaystyle\frac{n+1}{2n+1}
0%
\displaystyle \frac{2n+1}{4n+1}
0%
\displaystyle\frac{n+2}{n+3}
0%
\displaystyle\frac{2n+3}{4n+1}
Explanation
If
P(r)
be the probability that a number
r
is drawn in one draw, it is given that
P(r) = kr;
where
k
is a constant.
\therefore P(1) + P(2) + P(3) + \cdots + p(4n) = k \cdot 1 + k \cdot 2 + ...+ k\cdot (4n) = k\left [ 1 + 2 + 3 + \cdots+4n\right ]
1= \displaystyle \frac{4n(4n + 1)k}{2}
\displaystyle\therefore \sum_{r=0}^{n}P(r)=1
or
P(S)= 1
\displaystyle\Rightarrow K=\frac{1}{2n\left ( 4n+1 \right )}
Now
'A'
event of drawing
2, 4, 6, ...4n
P(A)= P ( 2
or
4
or
6 ....
or
4n )
\therefore P(A)= P(2) + P(4) + \cdots + P(4n)
=2k\left (1 + 2 + ... + 2n \right )
P(A)= k(2n) \left (2n + I \right )
P(A)= (2n)\left (2n + I \right )
\therefore P(A)= \displaystyle \frac{2n+1}{4n+1}
Let
p
be the probability that a man aged
x
years will die in a year time. The probability that out of
n
men
\displaystyle A_{1},A_{2},A_{3},....,A_{n}
each aged
x
years,
\displaystyle A_{1}
will die & will be the first to die, is
Report Question
0%
\displaystyle \frac{1-p^{n}}{n}
0%
\displaystyle \frac{p}{n}
0%
\displaystyle \frac{p\left ( 1-p \right )^{n-1}}{n}
0%
\displaystyle \frac{1-\left ( 1-p \right )^{n}}{n}
Explanation
Let
E_i
be the event that
A_i
will die in a year where i=1, 2, 3, 4, ..., n
The probability that none of
A_1, A_2, A_3, ..., A_n
dies in a year
=
(1-p_{A_1}).(1-p_{A_2}), ..., (1-p_{A_n})
Where
p_{A_1}, p_{A_2}, ..., p_{A_n}
are the probabilities that
A_1, A_2, A_3, ..., A_n
dies in a year respectively.
=
(1-p).(1-p), ...(1-p)=(1-p)^n
Now the probability that at least one of
A_1, A_2, A_3, ..., A_n
=
1-(1-p)^n
The probability that among n men
A_1
is the first one to die is
\dfrac 1n
Therefore, the required probability is
=\dfrac 1n[1-(1-p)^n]
A continuous random variable
X
has p.d.f
f(x)
, then:
Report Question
0%
0\le f(x)\le 1
0%
f(x)\ge 0
0%
f(x)\le 1
0%
0< f(x)< 1
Explanation
Let
X
be a continuous random variable.
Let
f(x)
be the p.d.f of
X
.
We know that the p.d.f
f(x)
of a continuous random variable
X
is always positive. That is
f(x) \geq 0, \forall x\in \mathbb{R}
Thus a continuous random variable
X
has p.d.f
f(x)
then
f(x)\geq 0
A boy has 20% chance of hitting at a target. Let p denote the probability of hitting the target for the first time at the nth trial. If
p
satisfies the inequality
625p^{2} - 175p + 12 < 0
then value of
n
is
Report Question
0%
1
0%
2
0%
3
0%
4
Explanation
Let p
(
n
)
=
Hitting for the 1st time at the n-th trial
\implies p(n)=0.8^{n-1}\times0.2
The boundary
of the inequality
62p^2-175p+12=0
is the solution of a quadratic equation in
p
:
or,
175^2-4\times12\times625=625=25^2
\implies p=\dfrac {175\pm25}{1250}=\dfrac 3{25}
or
\dfrac 4{25}
So
p
(
n
)
is negative between those two values.
p(n)=\dfrac 3{25}=0.8^{n-1}\times 0.2\\\implies \dfrac 35=0.8^{n-1}\\\implies \log\left(\dfrac 35\right)=(n-1)\log (0.8)\\\implies n=1+\dfrac {\log \left(\dfrac 35\right)}{\log (0.8)}=3.289
p(n)=\dfrac 4{25}=0.8^{n-1}\times 0.2\\\implies \dfrac 45=0.8^{n-1}\\\implies \log\left(\dfrac 45\right)=(n-1)\log (0.8)\\\implies n=1+\dfrac {\log \left(\dfrac 45\right)}{\log (0.8)}=2
Hence,
2<n<3.289\implies n=3
If
X
is a discrete random variable then which of the following is correct?
Report Question
0%
0\le F(x)<1
0%
F(-\infty )=0;F(\infty )\le 1
0%
P\left[ X={ x }_{ n } \right] =F({ x }_{ n })-F({ x }_{ n-1 })
0%
F(x)
is a constant function
Two cards are drawn simultaneously (without replacement) from a well-shuffled pack of
52
cards. Find the mean and variance of the number of red cards.
Report Question
0%
Mean
= 0.1
and Variance
= 0.7
0%
Mean
= 0.6
and Variance
= 0.3
0%
Mean
= 0.49
and Variance
= 0.37
0%
Mean
= 0
and Variance
= 0.45
Explanation
Since we have to draw two red cards(without replacement) from
52
cards, therefore the probability is:
p=\dfrac { 26 }{ 52 } \times \dfrac { 25 }{ 51 } =\dfrac { 25 }{ 102 }
And,
q=1-\dfrac { 25 }{ 102 } =\dfrac { 77 }{ 102 }
Since
n=2
, therefore,
Mean=np=2\times \dfrac { 25 }{ 102 } =\dfrac { 50 }{ 102 } =0.49\\
Variance=npq=2\times \dfrac { 25 }{ 102 } \times \dfrac { 77 }{ 102 } =0.37
f(x)=\dfrac { A }{ \pi } .\dfrac { 1 }{ 16+{ x }^{ 2 } } ,-\infty <x<\infty
is a p.d.f of a continuous random variable
X
, then the value of
A
is:
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0%
16
0%
8
0%
4
0%
1
Explanation
For a probability distribution function
f(x), a<x<b
of a continuous random variable
X
, it is required that
\displaystyle \int_a^b f(x)dx = 1
\therefore \displaystyle \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \cfrac{A}{\pi}\cfrac{1}{16+x^2}dx = 1
\Rightarrow \displaystyle \cfrac{A}{\pi}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\cfrac{1}{4^2 + x^2}dx = 1
\Rightarrow \displaystyle \cfrac{A}{\pi} \cfrac14\tan^{-1}\left(\cfrac x4\right)\big|_{-\infty}^{\infty} =1
\Rightarrow \cfrac {A}{4\pi}\left[\cfrac{\pi}2 - \left(-\cfrac{\pi}2\right) \right] = 1
\Rightarrow \cfrac{A}{4} =1
\Rightarrow A = 4
What is P(
Z
is the product of two prime numbers) equal to ?
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0%
0
0%
\dfrac{1}{4}
0%
\dfrac{1}{6}
0%
\dfrac{1}{12}
Explanation
Given set
=\{1,2,3,4,5,6,7\}
Z=X+Y
Where X is randomly selected from set of odd numbers and
Y is randomly selected from set of even numbers
Which gives Z as odd and greater than one
X=\{1,3,5,7\}
Y=\{2,4,6\}
Z=\{3,5,7,9,11,13\}
To find probability of Z being product of two prime numbers-
Among the above obtained values of Z, none can be expressed in the form of product of two different prime numbers
\therefore P=0
NOTE
- If we consider that Z is to be expressed as product of two different prime numbers, then the answer is 0
But if we assume that the prime numbers used in the products can be same, then
9 can be expressed as product of 2 prime numbers
Z=X+Y=9
\{X,Y\}=\{\{7,2\},\{3,6\},\{5,4\}\}
P=\cfrac { 1 }{ 4 } \times \cfrac { 1 }{ 3 } +\cfrac { 1 }{ 4 } \times \cfrac { 1 }{ 3 } +\cfrac { 1 }{ 4 } \times \cfrac { 1 }{ 3 }
P=\cfrac{1}{4}
The distribution of a random variable X is given below:
X = x
2
-1
0
1
2
3
P(X = x)
\frac{1}{10}
k
\frac{1}{5}
2k
\frac{3}{10}
k
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\frac{1}{10}
0%
\frac{2}{10}
0%
\frac{3}{10}
0%
\frac{7}{10}
The probability that the bag contains 2 balls of each colour, is
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\dfrac{1}{3}
0%
\dfrac{1}{5}
0%
\dfrac{1}{10}
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\dfrac{1}{4}
Let the p.m.f. of a random variable
X
be -
P(x) = \dfrac {3 - x}{10}
for
x = -1, 0, 1, 2
otherwise
Then
E(X)
is _________.
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0%
1
0%
2
0%
0
0%
-1
Explanation
x
-1
0
1
2
P(x)
\dfrac{4}{10}
\dfrac{3}{10}
\dfrac{2}{10}
\dfrac{1}{10}
x\cdot P(x)
-\dfrac{4}{10}
0
\dfrac{2}{10}
\dfrac{2}{10}
We have to find
E(X)
We know that
E(X)=\sum x\cdot P(x)
\therefore E(X)=-\dfrac{4}{10}+0+\dfrac{2}{10}+\dfrac{2}{10}=0
Hence
E(X)=0
The range of a random variable X =
{ 1,2,3,4,...}
and the probabilities are given by
P (X = k) = \frac{C^k}{ k! }
;
k = 1,2,3,4...,
then the value of C is
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0%
2
0%
log_2 e
0%
log_e 2
0%
4
A random variable
X
has the following probability distribution:
X
0
1
2
3
4
5
P(X=x)
\cfrac{1}{4}
2a
3a
4a
5a
\cfrac{1}{4}
Then
P(1\le X\le 4)
is:
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0%
\cfrac { 10 }{ 21 }
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\cfrac { 2 }{ 7 }
0%
\cfrac { 1 }{ 14 }
0%
\cfrac { 1 }{ 2 }
Explanation
We know that
\sum P(X=x)=1
\Rightarrow \dfrac{1}{4}+2a+3a+4a+5a+\dfrac{1}{4}=1
\Rightarrow \dfrac{1}{2}+14a=1
\Rightarrow 14a=1-\dfrac{1}{2}
\Rightarrow 14a=\dfrac{1}{2}
\Rightarrow a=\dfrac{1}{28}
Now we have to find
P(1\leq x \leq 4)
P(1\leq x \leq 4)=P(x=1)+P(x=2)+P(x=3)+P(x=4)
=2a+3a+4a+5a
=14a
=14 \left(\dfrac{1}{28}\right) \quad \left[\because a=\dfrac{1}{28}\right]
=\dfrac{1}{2}
\therefore P(1\leq x \leq 4)=\dfrac{1}{2}
The random variable
X
follows normal distribution
f(x)=c{ e }^{ \cfrac { -\cfrac { 1 }{ 2 } { \left( x-100 \right) }^{ 2 } }{ 25 } }
. Then the value of
c
is:
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\sqrt { 2\pi }
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\cfrac { 1 }{ \sqrt { 2\pi } }
0%
5\sqrt { 2\pi }
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\cfrac { 1 }{5 \sqrt { 2\pi } }
Explanation
The normal density function of the random variable
X
is given by
f(x)=ce^{\dfrac{-\dfrac{1}{2}(x-100)^2}{25}}
...(1)
We have to find the value of
c
.
We know that, if
X \sim N(\mu ,\sigma^2)
, the normal density function is
f(x;\mu,\sigma^2)=\dfrac{1}{\sigma\sqrt{2\pi}}e^{\dfrac{-(x-\mu)^2}{2\sigma^2}}
...(2)
Comparing
(1)
and
(2)
we get
c=\dfrac{1}{\sigma\sqrt{2\pi}}, \mu=100, \sigma^2=25 \Rightarrow \sigma=5
\therefore c=\dfrac{1}{5\sqrt{2\pi}}
If the range of random variable X is {0, 1, 2, 3, 4...} with p(X = k) =
\frac{(k + 1)a}{3^k}
for
k>=
0, then a =
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0%
\frac{2}{3}
0%
\frac{4}{9}
0%
\frac{8}{27}
0%
\frac{16}{81}
There are
5
men and
5
women in a party. In how many can
5
dancing pairs be selected ? (each dancing pair consists of
1
man and
1
women )
Report Question
0%
120
0%
44
0%
32
0%
10
Two probability distributions of the discrete random variable
X
and
Y
are given below.
X
0
1
2
3
P\left( X \right)
\dfrac { 1 }{ 5 }
\dfrac { 2 }{ 5 }
\dfrac { 1 }{ 5 }
\dfrac { 1 }{ 5 }
Y
0
1
2
3
P\left( Y \right)
\dfrac { 1 }{ 5 }
\dfrac { 3 }{ 10 }
\dfrac { 2 }{ 5 }
\dfrac { 1 }{ 10 }
Then
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E\left( { Y }^{ 2 } \right) =2E\left( X \right)
0%
E\left( { Y }^{ 2 } \right) =E\left( X \right)
0%
E\left( Y \right) =E\left( X \right)
0%
E\left( { X }^{ 2 } \right) =2E\left( Y \right)
Explanation
E(X)=\sum { XP( } X)=0*\frac { 1 }{ 5 } +1*\frac { 2 }{ 5 } +2*\frac { 1 }{ 5 } +3*\frac { 1 }{ 5 } =7/5\\ E({ Y }^{ 2 })=\sum { { y }^{ 2 }P(Y) } ={ 0 }^{ 2 }*\frac { 1 }{ 5 } +1^{ 2 }*\frac { 3 }{ 10 } +{ 2 }^{ 2 }*\frac { 4 }{ 10 } +{ 3 }^{ 2 }*\frac { 1 }{ 10 } =28/10=14/5\\ E({ Y }^{ 2 })=2E(X)
The total numbers of outcomes when three coins tossed once is .....
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2
0%
8
0%
6
0%
4
Explanation
When three coins tossed ones then total number of outcomes is :
8
\{ TTT,HHH,TTH,THT,HTT,HHT,HTH,THH\}
The random variable X has the following probability massfunction
P[x=x]=k.\dfrac{2x}{x!}, x=0,1,2,3=0
, otherwise, then the value of K is
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0%
\dfrac{1}{5}
0%
\dfrac{2}{5}
0%
\dfrac{3}{5}
0%
\dfrac{4}{5}
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Practice Class 12 Commerce Applied Mathematics Quiz Questions and Answers
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