Explanation
$$\\sin^{-1}x\>>cos^{-1}x\\sin^{-1}x\>>(\frac{\pi}{2})-sin^{-1}x\\2sin^{-1}x\>>(\frac{\pi}{2})\\sin^{-1}x\>>(\frac{\pi}{4})\\x\>>sin(\frac{\pi}{4})\\x\>>(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}})\\\therefore\>x\in\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt2 },1\right]$$
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